Whats the rule that makes "please" pronounced the same as "pleas"?
10.06.2025 23:54
Back in the day (circa 1300), it was written <plesen>.
Words are pronounced the way that they're pronounced.
There's no rule.
Please is an anglicization of the French word plaisir.
If you're curious about why a word is spelled the way it's spelled, your first recourse should be etymonline dot com.
You'll usually find your answer there.
How were cows used in ancient India?
While you may reasonably ask why words are spelled the way they're spelled, it makes no sense to ask why they're pronounced the way they're pronounced.
What's (not “whats”) the rule?
Whence the <ea> I cannot say but some other words that were spelled <ai> in French are spelled <ea> in English: aise → ease, graisse → grease, fait → feat.
Why do most Indian women cuckold or cheat on their husbands?
Pleas is spelled <pleas> because it's the plural of pleas.